Nissan 370Z Forum  

Everyone with oil temp issues

Originally Posted by theDreamer I would talk to the dealership, Nissan, and ask them to show me how and what went wrong with my car that caused this issue. If

Go Back   Nissan 370Z Forum > Nissan 370Z Tech Area > Engine & Drivetrain


Like Tree11Likes

Closed Thread
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Display Modes
Old 06-18-2009, 11:19 AM   #1 (permalink)
A True Z Fanatic
 
Join Date: Jun 2009
Location: Jenks, OK
Posts: 2,281
Drives: 370z Touring/Sport
Rep Power: 269
kannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond reputekannibul has a reputation beyond repute
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by theDreamer View Post
I would talk to the dealership, Nissan, and ask them to show me how and what went wrong with my car that caused this issue. If they then show me data indicating the intake was the cause then I would be S.O.L, but unless they can prove it with some data they would be required to honor my warranty. Now this is all typing and text on a forum, but when it comes down to it a dealership will cave very easily if you know what you are talking about. I have seen it time and again with my father, they tried to screw him on something and he told them they were wrong and proved it and they quickly backed off.

If the car owner does not know what he is able to say or do, the dealership/Nissan will walk all over him, but if you know your rights with a car and stand up for them they have more work to do than we do.
OK, what makes you think they're *required* to give you any data, pre-trail? There isn't a lawyer that will represent a warantee court case on contingency....so you're out a LOT of money just to get it to trial.


I'll state it one more time.


The Magnuson-Moss Act is a legal provision to prevent tie-in sales to maintain a warranty.

It has nothing to do with modifications.
kannibul is offline  
Old 06-18-2009, 12:55 PM   #2 (permalink)
Track Member
 
Join Date: May 2009
Location: Ohio
Posts: 699
Drives: 370Z-AT7 Tour+Sport
Rep Power: 377
ZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond repute
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by kannibul View Post
OK, what makes you think they're *required* to give you any data, pre-trail? There isn't a lawyer that will represent a warantee court case on contingency....so you're out a LOT of money just to get it to trial.


I'll state it one more time.


The Magnuson-Moss Act is a legal provision to prevent tie-in sales to maintain a warranty.

It has nothing to do with modifications.
Actually you are raising the issue of semantics in regards to the word "modification" so please allow me to explain how the MM Act applies to cover changes made by a car owner. I have an extensive understanding of how to apply the MM-Act as I have dealt with the Magnuson-Moss Act on several occcassions with several known Ford Mustang modification challenge issues. Read my entire answer as I do address the semantics issue and how the act can be applied to changes the car owner makes to a car.

Historically in general, the MM Act (and the courts are well aware of this) was made to protect the consumer, not the manufacturer. It was meant to cover any kind of merchandise and did not originate specifically out of issues dealing with cars. The MM-Act was made primarily to address two things:

1. Prevent a monopoly of service and OEM part replacement on the part of the manufacturer or in other words forcing the OWNER of any merchadise to always have to use OEM specified services or OEM specified parts. (I believe this speaks to your mention of "preventing tie-in sells")

2. Recognize the fact that the consumer and not the manufacturer is the OWNER of the merchadise consumed and that the manufacturer has no right to use their warranty as a "sword of damocles" over the head of the merchadise OWNER to mitigate their right as OWNER to choose and use 3rd-party parts that were made specific and to OEM-spec when replacing OEM parts original to the merchandise when they first bought it. (This is a reason you do not seem to be aware of.)

Historically how this act eventually made its way to be applied to cars was that prior to the MM-Act, car maufacturers in particular were abusing the consumers by forcing them to have to use OEM services (dealers) and OEM parts when doing any maintenance or fixing of the cars. When the consumer started to use 3rd-party-made replacement parts in an attempt to save money instead of the overpriced OEM parts the manufacturers countered by then starting to use the warranty as the way to force their OEM-usage intent.

As time went on the words "part replacement" and "modification" have become semantically intertwined over time which has caused some misunderstandings as to how the MM-Act applies or not..

Where the MM-Act specifically supports modifications being made to cars by the owner is when an owner of the car replaces OEM made parts using 3rd-party made parts that were specifically made, functionally spec'd and functionally intended to replace the manufacturers OEM parts. As long as the consumer/OWNER does not modify the 3rd-party part that will change its INTENDED FUNCTION and take the car out of OEM's intended spec TOLERANCES then the consumer / OWNER is free to use the 3rd-party made parts including CAI, any exhaust pieces, pullies and etc.

Notice I used the word TOLERANCES and not the word PERFORMANCE POTENTIAL. This is where the OEM manufacturer tries to take advantage of the consumer to deny the consumers claim. The OEM manufacturer tries to use "slight of hand" here to equate SPEC TOLERANCE with PERFORMANCE POTENTIAL and these are entirely two distinct beasts.

If a 3rd-party made part used by the consumer / owner as a "part replacement" keeps the car within the OEM part's mechanical specification on mechnical TOLERANCES then the OEM manufacturer has no basis to deny the warranty. If the car of the consumer / owner picks up extra HP or TQ or whatever other kind of PERFORMANCE POTENTIAL to be gained then the OEM manufacturer CANNOT use this gain as proof of going out of TOLERANCE nor can they deny the claim on the basis of a "modification" being made.

If however (1) using the 3rd-party part was manufactured and sold out of OEM spec TOLERANCE of the replaced OEM part and the intent of being out of spec was because this was the only way to achieve an increase in PERFORMANCE POTENTIAL or (2) the consumer / owner took a 3rd-party in-OEM spec part and makes an alteration to it that does cause it to go out of OEM spec TOLERANCE then then the OEM manufacturer can deny the warranty claim on the basis of a "modification".

So this should clear up and lay to rest the semantics going on here and the impacts onthe use of the MM-Act.

Let me say in conclusion that in general, the act itself has been interpreted by the courts to force the burden of proof onto the OEM manufacturer when denying a warranty claim by the owner who used 3rd-party parts. The OEM manufacturer of the merchandise consumed by the owner is required (by the court's interpretation of the MM-Act) to show that the parts used by the owner is 100% the root and total cause of the issue being denied by the manufacturer.

This is so precisely because of the semantic latitude as to what is or is not considered to be a "modification" and because of the OEM manufacturers attemtp to muddy the waters with their misleading use of the word TOLERANCE and PERFORMANCE POTENTIAL.

If the owner of the merchandise at issue takes the OEM manufacturer to court and the OEM manufacturer fails to bring TANGIBLE proof of 100% root cause failure based on the owner's use of the 3rd-party made part, the OEM manufacturer WILL lose the issue.

I hope this helps guys.

Last edited by ZKindaGuy; 06-18-2009 at 01:13 PM.
ZKindaGuy is offline  
Old 06-18-2009, 01:32 PM   #3 (permalink)
Track Member
 
Robert_Nash's Avatar
 
Join Date: Jan 2009
Location: Middle TN/Savannah GA
Posts: 762
Drives: '14 Q60IPL/'14Armada
Rep Power: 19
Robert_Nash is just really niceRobert_Nash is just really niceRobert_Nash is just really niceRobert_Nash is just really nice
Default

An excellent post but I'm not sure that it does clear up the issue.

As there is no engine oil cooler installed on the vehicle in stock form, adding an engine oil cooler is clearly not a "replacement part". Further, as the vehicle, from most accounts, does function as intended when used legally on the street, I would think that the addition of an engine oil cooler could be reasonably construed as a modification intended to improve performance (i.e. make the car trackable).

Finally, regardless of the burden of proof (not to discount that important fact), a consumer still has to initiate legal proceedings which is generally not an easy, inexpensive or quick process...even if the consumer ultimately prevails and is reimbursed for any legal expenses, etc, it's still not an easy process.

If I'm missing something critical here please elaborate...again, excellent post IMAHO.
__________________
Robert
-My Basset Hound Is Smarter Than Your Honor Student and Barack Obama -

Last edited by Robert_Nash; 06-18-2009 at 01:40 PM.
Robert_Nash is offline  
Old 06-18-2009, 10:32 PM   #4 (permalink)
Track Member
 
Join Date: May 2009
Location: Ohio
Posts: 699
Drives: 370Z-AT7 Tour+Sport
Rep Power: 377
ZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond reputeZKindaGuy has a reputation beyond repute
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Robert_Nash View Post
An excellent post but I'm not sure that it does clear up the issue.

As there is no engine oil cooler installed on the vehicle in stock form, adding an engine oil cooler is clearly not a "replacement part". Further, as the vehicle, from most accounts, does function as intended when used legally on the street, I would think that the addition of an engine oil cooler could be reasonably construed as a modification intended to improve performance (i.e. make the car trackable).

Finally, regardless of the burden of proof (not to discount that important fact), a consumer still has to initiate legal proceedings which is generally not an easy, inexpensive or quick process...even if the consumer ultimately prevails and is reimbursed for any legal expenses, etc, it's still not an easy process.

If I'm missing something critical here please elaborate...again, excellent post IMAHO.

Unfortunately I really wasn't addressing the oil cooler question...I was addressing strictly the confusion about the MM-Act. But to extend my answer to address the question. I agree that from the OEM perspective the added 3rd-party oil cooler would NOT be viewed by the OEM as a "replacement" part because it isn't part of the stock configuration to begin with and under the strictest interpretation it would be considered a "modification".

Personally I think the OEM would be hard pressed finding any evidence of something being out of OEM spec TOLERANCE unless the OEM can show that there is a known and provable damage to an engine that a lowered temperature of 30 to 40 degrees can cause.

The only way I could see them making an argument would be based upon the season of the year, specifically the winter time. They might be able to claim that as a result of the added oil cooler the oil was prevented from reaching an effective viscosity so as to be able to lubricate the engine internals properly.

Even in this case the burdon would still be on the mnaufacturer to have to show how the addition of the oil cooler is 100% the cause of whatever the problem is.

So I believe there is some certain wiggle room here for a possible TEST case to extend the MM-Act to include situations such as this. It must be understood by the car owner however that this action would be a gamble with no certain outcome because it is what it is...a TEST CASE.

Personally I would want to protect my investment so I would probably add the oil cooler and then take my chances in court because there is an argument that can be made for engine damaage as a result of excessive and sustained heat due to lack of any cooling device in the stock design of the car. Perhaps a good OEM negligence claim as well.
ZKindaGuy is offline  
Closed Thread

Bookmarks

Thread Tools
Display Modes

Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On


Similar Threads
Thread Thread Starter Forum Replies Last Post
What engine temp are you normally around? RCZ Engine & Drivetrain 92 06-25-2016 03:58 PM
Warm Up / Oil Temp Gauge TacoZ Nissan 370Z General Discussions 8 12-18-2008 03:33 PM


All times are GMT -5. The time now is 01:20 AM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.4
Copyright ©2000 - 2026, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.
Search Engine Optimization by vBSEO 3.6.0 PL2